# Revision history of "Section 1.8"

• curprev 23:16, 15 November 2015‎ ‎ 5,204 bytes +5,204 Created page with "'''1.''' Let $L, K: V \to V$ be linear maps between finite-dimensional vector spaces that satisfy $L \circ K = 0$. Is it true that [itex]K \circ L = 0</m..."